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This is one of the sources I am using for my comments: https://www.amazon.com/Postwar-History-Europe-Since-1945/dp/...

Yugoslavia (and all the violence that happened during and post it's collapse) is not a good example of what happens in a heterogeneous countries once the dictator was out.

Belgium and the two main areas/languages of it only came to harmony after the prosperity, and it mostly functioned like two countries within a state with almost all the powers to the two separate regions.

Ethnic minorities did exist in Europe before the wars, but in the post war period most countries kicked their ethnic minorities out.

Catholic and Protestants had to endure centuries of violence (almost as long as the history of the USA itself) together before learning to live together. Sure, after a long long period of assimilation everything can become assimilated together like that.

> it's exactly after WW2 that immigration from the colonies to France

The immigration to France was almost entirely from Algeria, not multiple colonies. And that too didn't go well and the immigrants faced tons and tons of discrimination.

By homogeneous I mean culturally homogenous here.

You seem to use the word racist very casually, as if anyone whose opinions sound untrue to you is driven by racism.

You also state something as simply untrue yet cite nothing to back such strong claims.

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